Posted By:
Mattleon - just to play devil's advocate (since this wasn't my argument) if I bought a card yesterday for $75 and sell it today for $2000 aren't both valid for valuation? Now, you could argue that if I was able to buy it for $75 yesterday, then clearly that was an incorrect value and $2000 is correct, but what if the $2000 was just the product of some silly bidding war? Maybe the underbidder will be able to buy the next one for $75 since his competition is gone and that's why I was able to buy it for $75 in the first place; the competition was skiing in the Rockies and didn't see the listing.
The argument is that any recent sales data could be used to make a valid argument as to value.