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Old 03-08-2007, 11:30 AM
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Default Am I missing something here?

Posted By: Todd Schultz

but I don't get it. The very first bidder placed a $999 bid two days before auction end. If he wanted to screw Dan, topping all bids and then telling him to pound sand, why put in a second, snipe bid under a new name with a few seconds left? His first bid would clearly carry the day. Is it just to jack up final ebay fees? If so, aren't those refundable or non-assessed if you have a non-paying bidder?

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