ERA question when error in inning
Man on first base with 1 out. He tries to steal 2nd and overthrow causes runner to go to 3rd base. Against drawn in infield, next better gets a base hit only due to the infield being brought in...for sake of argument there is 100% chance an out would of been made had runner been on 2nd..... The next 2 batters strike out and inning is over. (of course if there was a runner on 2nd or 3rd, maybe the next batters wouldnt of struck out and been sure to make more contact, but we will save that for another day)
My understanding is that run in earned.....i know there are earned runs issues based on the 'intent' of runners..would they of run home at there not been a bobble etc...
but this isnt an intent issue....just seems like the run shouldnt of been earned but it will be....i guess the 'cant assume a double play' also means 'cant assume an ordinary out'......
anyway just asking out there if theres any possibility the scorekeeper could make that run not earned due to the drawn in infield.....
Last edited by 1952boyntoncollector; 04-10-2016 at 11:37 AM.
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04-10-2016, 11:36 AM
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