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Posted By: pas

But isn't market value best defined as the price on which a willing buyer and willing seller agree? So if I am willing to pay 3000 for a card, and I am shilled up to 3000, and I would have won the card for only 2500 absent shilling, why is 2500 a more "accurate" measure of market value?

EDITED TO ADD In a market where the goods are not fungible, I would argue that the outlying buyer DOES define market value, even if he is the only one willing to go that high.