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#1
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Yes and no. You can't penalize a guy because another guy didn't hit the ball to him. But in the aggregate, it is VERY LIKELY that as many balls were hit in the same area, making it statistically similar. And that's the comparison. A 20% difference is pretty significant.
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#2
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He's talking about assists. You can't get an assist without a ball hit to you. Assuming the difference in assists figures is based on base hits seems presumptuous.
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#3
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Quote:
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